Remember that "no extension of $p$ forces $\
eg\varphi$" is by definition of the forcing relation equivalent to "$p$ forces $\
eg\
eg\varphi$." Intuitively, this should be equivalent to "$p$ forces $\varphi$," and if you believe this then the second conjunct is obvious. Also note that "$p$ forces $\varphi$" clearly implies "$p$ forces $\
eg\
eg\varphi$."
So the real content of the second conjunct is basically saying that we have double negation elimination in this context.