Let's assume that Oppermann's conjecture is true and for every prime $p_n$ and next prime $p_{n+1}$,$$p_{n+1}
Now note that every number $k$ such that $p_n
EDIT: One can verify or find counterexamples of the inequality manually for small $k$s around above counterexamples.
If Oppermann's conjecture is not true, and furthermore, there exists a prime $q$ and integer $n$ such that $p_np_n$$so your conjecture has counterexample.