The answer is no. Consider $$ A=\pmatrix{0&0&1\\\ 1&0&0\\\ 0&1&0},\ B=\pmatrix{0&0&0\\\ 1&0&\ast\\\ 0&1&\ast}, \ C=\pmatrix{0&0&1\\\ 1&0&-1\\\ 0&1&-1}. $$ Then
* $v=e_3$ is cyclic for $A$ but not for $B$. The problem is that $v\in\operatorname{ran}(B)\subsetneqq\mathbb R^n$.
* $(1,1,1)^T$ is cyclic for $C$ but not for $A$, because it is an eigenvector of $A$.