Take $$f(n)=[n]+[-n]=n-n=0, \quad n\in\mathbb{N},$$ and then take $$f\left(\frac{2n+1}{2}\right)=n+(-n-1)=-1, \quad n\in\mathbb N$$
Then you have two different sequences with different limits when $\,n\to\infty\,$ and thus the limit at $\,\infty\,$ doesn't exist.