If by 1) you mean that $s_n-s_n^{*} \to 0$ almost surely (or just in probability) then it is true that $s_n$ converges in distribution to $N(0,\sigma_s)$. This can be proved using characteristic functions: $E(e^{its_n}-e^{its_n^{*}})=E(e^{its_n}(1-e^{it(s_n^{*}-s_n)}) \to 0$ by DCT and convergence in distribution follows from this. Actually, $s_n-s_n^{*} \to 0$ in distribution implies $s_n-s_n^{*} \to 0$ in probability so the conclusion holds even in this case.