No, this is extremely false. For instance, if $k$ is any field and $F=k(X_1,X_2,\dots)$ is a field of rational functions in infinitely many variables, then the fields of rational functions $K=F(Y)$ and $L=F(Y,Z)$ are isomorphic but $K$ is monogenic over $F$ and $L$ is not.
It is true if you assume $K$ and $L$ are isomorphic not just as fields but as fields over $F$. That is, assume there is an isomorphism $\theta:K\to L$ which is the identity on $F$ (or actually, it would suffice to have $\theta(F)\supseteq F$). Then the proof is trivial: if $K=F(a)$, then $L=\theta(F(a))=\theta(F)(\theta(a))=F(\theta(a))$.