Not exactly; the convergence alone does not ensure that conclusion. Indeed, there is a converging sequence $(x_{n})$ with limit not $\inf_{n}x_{n}$ (what is an example?). If $x_{n} := 1/n$, then $(x_{n})$ is decreasing ; so it just so happened that $\inf_{n}x_{n} = \lim_{n}x_{n}$ (Try to prove this; could you?).