Okay I have found an example:
$f_{xx} + \frac{1}{x}f_x+f_x^2 +\epsilon ff_x=0$ for $x>1$
$f=0$ on $x=1$ and $f\rightarrow 1$
The solution is something close to $\log(1+\log(x)/\log(1/\epsilon))$
Van Dyke's rule fails because when expanding an infinite number terms are of the same order (in size).
However, with the intermediate variable approach since we are scaling by $\epsilon^{-\alpha}$ with $\alpha \in[0,1]$ we are able to choose $\alpha$ so that there are only a finite number of terms the same order.
The example is completely contrived though, I would feel much better with a more natural example.
Thank you for your effort J.Meyer and J.M.