> How is the time till bankruptcy distributed?
This is an application of the Hitting Time Theorem (see, e.g. here (Theorem 1) or pg. 79 of Grimmett and Stirzaker).
$$P(\text{Ruined at game $n$ starting with $\$x$}) = \dfrac{x}{n}\binom{n}{(n-x)/2}p^{(n-x)/2}q^{(n+x)/2}.$$
> Is the expected time till bankruptcy $= \infty$?
Yes, if $p\geq q$. Otherwise, it is
$$\dfrac{x}{q-p}.$$
Ref: e.g. Section 2.1.2 of here or G&S pg. 74. In both references take the limit as casino's fortune approaches $\infty$ because they assume a finite casino amount.