No. The correct answer is 1. Suppose that $u\in\ker T$, that is, that $T(u)=0$. Then $u.v=u.w=0$. In other words, $u$ is orthogonal to both $u$ and $v$. And this is the same thing as asserting that $u$ is parallel to $v\times w$.
No. The correct answer is 1. Suppose that $u\in\ker T$, that is, that $T(u)=0$. Then $u.v=u.w=0$. In other words, $u$ is orthogonal to both $u$ and $v$. And this is the same thing as asserting that $u$ is parallel to $v\times w$.