Continuing from where you left off, this means that there is some $t$ such that: $m(i-j) + r_1 - r_2 = mt$, so $r_1 - r_2 = m(t-i+j)$, hence $m$ divides $r_1-r_2$. But $0 \le r_1 < m$ and $0 \le r_2 < m$, so $|r_1 - r_2| < m$. This can only mean that $r_1 - r_2 = 0$.