For a counterexample, let $$ G = \\{0\\}\times[0,1] \cup (0,1) \times ([0,1]\setminus \mathbb Q) \\\ P = \\{1\\}\times([0,1]\setminus \mathbb Q) $$
$G\cup P$ is path-connected, but the only way to connect two different points of $P$ is to go all the way down to the $x$-axis, then horizontally and then up again. So $H$ has to be all of $G$, which has area (that is, Lebesgue measure) $1$.
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Or, for a less pathological example, consider
$$ G = (\mathbb R\setminus \\{0\\})\times (0,\infty) \cup \\{(0,0)\\} \\\ P = (\mathbb R\setminus \\{0\\})\times (-\infty,0) $$
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Or, nicer yet,
$$ G = \mathbb R \times (0,1) \\\ P = \mathbb R^2 \setminus G $$