**_(1) $\Longrightarrow$ (2):_**
Set
$z = x - y; \tag 1$
set
$g = f_1 - f_2; \tag 2$
then
$Lz = L(x - y) = Lx - Ly = f_1 - f_2 = g; \tag 3$
thus, _via_ our OP Holden's stipulated item (1),
$\Vert z \Vert_\infty \le C \Vert g \Vert_\infty; \tag 4$
therefore,
$\Vert x - y \Vert_\infty = \Vert z \Vert_\infty \le C \Vert g \Vert_\infty = C\Vert f_1 - f_2 \Vert_\infty, \tag 5$
which is Holden's item (2).
**_(2)_** $\Longrightarrow$ **_(1):_**
As Holden him/herself points out, taking
$y = 0, \; f_1 = f; \tag 6$
yields
$f_2 = Ly = L0 = 0, \tag 7$
whence
$\Vert x \Vert_\infty = \Vert x - y \Vert_\infty \le C \Vert f_1 - f_2 \Vert_\infty = C \Vert f - 0 \Vert_\infty = C \Vert f \Vert_\infty, \tag 8$
which is Holden's item (1).
Thus the two stipulated hypotheses are, in fact, equivalent.