Let $a$ be any real number. There is always a sequence $\langle q_n:n\in\Bbb N\rangle$ of rational numbers converging to $a$, and along this sequence you have $\langle f(q_n):n\in\Bbb N\rangle\to 1$, since all of the $f(q_n)$ are equal to $1$. There is also always a sequence $\langle x_n:n\in\Bbb N\rangle$ of irrational numbers converging to $a$, and along this sequence you have $\langle f(x_n):n\in\Bbb N\rangle=\langle e^{x_n}:n\in\Bbb N\rangle\to e^a$. In order for $f$ to be continuous at $a$, these two limits must be the same. What does that tell you about $a$?