I will interpret your question as follows.
> Denote by $F$ the set of all strictly increasing, strictly positive, real-valued functions that are defined on $\mathbb{R}$. Is it true that, for all $f \in F$, the following holds: $$ \limsup_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{f(x)}{f(x/2)} < \infty? \tag{*}\label{eq} $$
The answer to this question is: "No, \eqref{eq} doesn't hold for all $f \in F$." As a counter-example take, for instance, the exponential function. Indeed, $$ \limsup_{x\rightarrow\infty} \frac{e^x}{e^{x/2}} = \limsup_{x\rightarrow\infty} e^{x/2} = \infty. $$