Unfortunately neither implication is true. Let
$$X=\\{1,2\\}$$ $$\mathcal{T}_1=\\{\emptyset, X, \\{1\\}\\}$$ $$\mathcal{T}_2=\\{\emptyset, X, \\{2\\}\\}$$
Now let $f:X\to X$ be given by $f(1)=2$ and $f(2)=1$. You can easily check that $f$ is continuous (in fact it is a homeomorphism) but neither $\mathcal{T}_1\subseteq \mathcal{T}_2$ nor $\mathcal{T}_2\subseteq \mathcal{T}_1$.
* * *
On the other hand let
$$X=\\{1,2\\}$$ $$\mathcal{T}_1=\\{\emptyset, X, \\{1\\}\\}$$ $$\mathcal{T}_2=\\{\emptyset, X, \\{1\\}\\}$$
This time $\mathcal{T}_1\subseteq \mathcal{T}_2$ (they are even equal). Again consider $f(1)=2$ and $f(2)=1$ and note that it is not continuous.
* * *
The statement is not true for general bijection $f$. It is true however for the identity map $f(x)=x$.