Its because $$\
abla \times (vf) = \
abla f \times v = -v \times \
abla f$$ for any constant vector $v$. In your case, $v=F(r')$ in the last integral.
Its because $$\
abla \times (vf) = \
abla f \times v = -v \times \
abla f$$ for any constant vector $v$. In your case, $v=F(r')$ in the last integral.