Note that the formulas "some $X$ are $Y$" and "some $Y$ are $X$" are equivalent: they are both a way of stating that $X \cap Y \
eq \emptyset$.
With this in mind, let us use $A,F,R$ for the sets of analysts, fools, and rich people. We know that:
$$A \cap F \
eq \emptyset\\\ F \cap R \
eq \emptyset$$
The question asks which of these is true:
> A. $A \cap R \
eq \emptyset$
> B. $R \cap A \
eq \emptyset$
> C. $A \cap R \
eq \emptyset$ or $R \cap A \
eq \emptyset$
> D. $A \cap R = \emptyset$ and $R \cap A = \emptyset$
> E. $A \cap R \
eq \emptyset$ and $R \cap A \
eq \emptyset$
Most of these are redundant; we can simplify the question to the following.
> A,B,C,E. $A \cap R \
eq \emptyset$
> D. $A \cap R = \emptyset$
But we can't conclude that either of these is true, since we don't know anything about $A \cap R$.