Yes, provided one assumes that the family $(x(t))_{0\leqslant t\leqslant N-1}$ is gaussian (recall that, as soon as $N\geqslant2$, this asks strictly more than each $x(t)$ being normally distributed). Then $y(f)$, the real part of $y(f)$ and the imaginary part of $y(f)$ are all **linear combinations** of a gaussian family hence they are normally distributed (complex-valued for $y(f)$ and real-valued for the others).
**Edit:** A standard way to ensure that a family is gaussian is to assume that each random variable is normally distributed and that the family is independent.