First of all, you need to show me how you got that result in order that I can explain where you went wrong.
Anyway, I am showing you the correct way to approach this problem and get the correct answer.
A deck has $52$ cards and out of them, $4$ are queens.
So you can get exactly $1$ queen by choosing a queen from deck $1$ and a non-queen from deck $2$. Similarly you can get exactly $1$ queen by choosing a queen from deck $2$ and a non-queen from deck $1$.
So the probability of getting exactly $1$ queen is
$= \large\frac{4}{52} \cdot \large\frac{48}{52} + \large\frac{48}{52} \cdot \large\frac{4}{52} $
$= 2 \cdot \large\frac{12}{13^2}$
$= \large\frac{24}{169}$
Now, as far as my intuition goes, you did not consider the $2$ different decks as different cases.