No; consider the matrices $A=B=\begin{pmatrix}2&0\\\0&2\end{pmatrix}$, or more generally $A=B=\lambda I$ with $\lambda\
eq0,1$.
No; consider the matrices $A=B=\begin{pmatrix}2&0\\\0&2\end{pmatrix}$, or more generally $A=B=\lambda I$ with $\lambda\
eq0,1$.