$f'(x) > 0$ everywhere means $f$ is continuous everywhere.
And the mean value theorem says that for any $a, b; a < b$ that there is a $c: a < c < b$ where $f'(c)=\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$.
But we know $f'(c) > 0$ so $f(b) > f(a)$.
$f'(x) > 0$ everywhere means $f$ is continuous everywhere.
And the mean value theorem says that for any $a, b; a < b$ that there is a $c: a < c < b$ where $f'(c)=\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}$.
But we know $f'(c) > 0$ so $f(b) > f(a)$.