Have you shown that $f(X)$ is closed in $X'$? If not, do this first. Now you know that $f(X)$ is a variety (being closed in a variety). (Without this, the question doesn't quite make sense; we need to knowthat $f(X)$ is a variety to talk about it being complete.)
Next, show that if $X \to Z$ is a surjection of varieties and $X$ is complete, so is $Z$. (Just work directly with the definition. This is basically a simple exercise in topology, using that the preimage of closed under a continuous map is closed, and using that if $X \to Z$ is surjective, so is $X \times Y \to Z \times Y$ for any $Y$.)