Consider $Y=\\{\varnothing,\\{1\\}\\}$.
From the point of view of $Y$ neither contain any elements, because $1\
otin Y$. But these are different sets.
To say that $\langle Y,\in\rangle$ is extensional is to say that the following is true: $$\forall x\in Y\forall y\in Y(x=y\leftrightarrow\forall z\in Y(z\in x\leftrightarrow z\in y))$$
This clearly fails in our case.