From the context, it seems this notations $\ a\simeq_{prim}b\ $ wants to mean that $a$ and $b$ are _coprimes_ , i.e. don't share any common prime divisor.
Then, the statement is simply another form of Euler's theorem, as we have $$1\equiv a^{\varphi(n)}=a\cdot a^{\varphi(n)-1} \pmod n,$$ so the multiplicative inverse of $a$ exists and is $a^{\varphi(n)-1}$ modulo $n$, whenever $a$ is coprime to $n$.