Actually you have $P(F' \mid V)=0.95$ and $P(V)=0.80$ so $P(F' \cap V)=0.76$
Similarly $P(F' \mid V')=0.80$ and $P(V')=0.20$ so $P(F' \cap V')=0.16$
Since these are exclusive events, $P(F')=P((F' \cap V) \cup (F' \cap V')) = 0.76+0.16=0.92$
Actually you have $P(F' \mid V)=0.95$ and $P(V)=0.80$ so $P(F' \cap V)=0.76$
Similarly $P(F' \mid V')=0.80$ and $P(V')=0.20$ so $P(F' \cap V')=0.16$
Since these are exclusive events, $P(F')=P((F' \cap V) \cup (F' \cap V')) = 0.76+0.16=0.92$