Try to avoid using the word "clearly", even though your statement is correct. Why is it true that $|aHa^{-1}|=|Ha^{-1}|$? A better way to show this is to build a map $\phi \colon H \to aHa^{-1}$ given by $\phi(h)= aha^{-1}$. This is surjective, since any $aha^{-1} \in aHa^{-1}$ is mapped to by $\phi(h)$. It is injective, since $ah_1a^{-1}=ah_2a^{-1}$ implies $h_1=h_2$ by cancellation. Thus $\phi$ is a bijection and the two subgroups have the same order.