No, in general, $X_{n}$ converges in disn to $X$, and $E \vert{X}\vert < \infty$ does not imply that $Var(X_{n})$ converges to $Var(X)$. You also need to have uniform integrability of $\vert X_{n}\vert^{2}$
No, in general, $X_{n}$ converges in disn to $X$, and $E \vert{X}\vert < \infty$ does not imply that $Var(X_{n})$ converges to $Var(X)$. You also need to have uniform integrability of $\vert X_{n}\vert^{2}$