You're going off in the wrong direction. Since $1^2=(p-1)^2$, the function $f(x)=x^2$ is not a subjection. Therefore its image is a strict subset of $Z/pZ$, since it's a finite set.
Put another way, there are $p$ numbers, but two of them have the same square, so we can go count the squares and find there are less than $p$.
Extending this argument a bit tells you that in fact half of the numbers are squares.