Your argument is basically right, but it leaves out the well-known fact that $\phi_Y(t)=Ee^{itY}=\exp(-t^2/2)$ never vanishes so the step from $\phi_{X+Y}=\phi_{X'+Y}$ to $\phi_X = \phi_{X'}$ is valid.
Your argument is basically right, but it leaves out the well-known fact that $\phi_Y(t)=Ee^{itY}=\exp(-t^2/2)$ never vanishes so the step from $\phi_{X+Y}=\phi_{X'+Y}$ to $\phi_X = \phi_{X'}$ is valid.