Yes. This is a consequence of the definition of $\models$ between two formulas:
> $\phi \models \psi$ iff $M \models \phi$ implies $M \models \psi$ for all models $M$.
(In the case of propositional logic, the models are the lines of a truth table.) Now since $M \models F$ can never occur, it vacuously follows that $F \models F$, and indeed that $F \models \phi$ for every formula $\phi$.