If there was a $z\in \mathbb{C}$ such that $e^z=0$ we would have
$e^z\cdot e^{-z}=0\cdot e^{-z} \Rightarrow\\\1=0$
which simply is not true.
_EDIT_
Another way to look at it is by using the form $e^z=e^{x+iy}=e^x(\cos y+i\sin y)$
with $x,y \in \mathbb{R}$
Thus $0=e^{x+iy}=e^x(\cos y+i\sin y)\Rightarrow \cos y=-i\sin y$
which cannot hold.