Your reasoning is right, since you seem to assume invertibility of $A$.
Without invertibility of $A$, the statement is wrong: Take $$ A=\pmatrix{1&0\\\0&0}, \ B = \pmatrix{0&0\\\1&0}, \ v = \pmatrix{1\\\0}, $$ then $Av = v$, $AB=0$, but $v$ is not an eigenvector of $B$.