Both are true.
The key word here is 'standardized'. Both $Y$ and $\bar{Y}$ are standardized using **different** means and variances so that the limiting distribution is identical.
ie. Suppose $X_i$ are i.i.d with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$.
Then it follows that $E[Y] = E[\sum X_i] = \sum E[X_i] = n\mu$
Likewise, $E[\bar{Y}] = \frac{1}{n}E[Y] = \mu$
Doing the same with variance and using $Var(cX) = c^2 Var(X)$ it is straightforward to see that:
$Var(Y) = n\sigma^2$ and $Var(\bar{Y}) = \frac{\sigma^2}{n}$
Hence when we standardize we get:
$$Y: Z = \frac{Y - n\mu}{\sqrt n\sigma} = \frac{Y/\sqrt n-\sqrt n \mu}{\sigma}$$
$$\bar{Y}: Z = \frac{\bar{Y} - \mu}{\sigma/\sqrt n} = \frac{Y/n - \mu}{\sigma/\sqrt n} = \frac{Y/\sqrt n - \sqrt n\mu}{\sigma}$$
So that standardizing either gives the same result, $Z$.