...where $a\in A$ and $d\in B-C$. We know by definition of $-$ that $d\in B$ and $d\
otin C$.
That is to say, $~~~a\in A$ and $d\in B~~~$ as well as $~~~a\in A$ and $d\
otin C$.
The first two imply that $(a,d)\in A\times B$ while the second two imply that $(a,d)\
otin A\times C$
These together imply that...
> $(a,d)\in (A\times B)-(A\times C)$ thus proving our desired claim.