First of all you havn´t a _perfect capital market_ , because you have _transaction costs_. In this case they are 85. The man has to pay the transaction costs. The man wants to borrow 21,915. He has to pay a fee of 85. Therefore he has to borrow in total 22,000. Let denote it $C_0$. After one year he has to pay back 25,000($C_1$).
_Relation between $C_1, C_0$ and discount rate:_
$C_0=(1-d)\cdot C_1$
Solving for d
$d=\frac{C_1-C_0}{C_1}=\frac{C_1-C_0}{C_1}\cdot 100\%$
In words:" How much is $C_0$ less than $C_1$ in relation to $C_1$.
$d=\frac{25,000-22,000}{25,000}\cdot 100\%=12\% $
_Relation between $C_1, C_0$ and interest rate:_
$C_1=(1+i)\cdot C_0$
Solving for i:
$i=\frac{C_1-C_0}{C_0}=\frac{C_1-C_0}{C_0}\cdot 100\% $
In words:" How much is $C_1$ bigger than $C_0$ in relation to $C_0$.
$i=\frac{25,000-22,000}{22,000}\cdot 100\%\approx 13.46\% $
The relation between i and d is:
$\boxed{d=\frac{i}{1+i}}$
Or
$i=\frac{d}{1-d}$