I suppose $f$ is a map $\Bbb{R} \rightarrow \Bbb{R}$. First you should consider what happens to irrational resp. rational numbers. The$\mod(1)$ expression creates an equivalence relation $x\sim y \Leftrightarrow x-y \in \Bbb {Z}$. Can an irrational number become rational? (i.e can an irrational belong to the same equivalence class as a rational?). Now consider a rational number of the form $\frac{p}{q}<1$ and $\gcd(p,q)=1$. The numbers in the orbit of this number are all of the form $\frac{r}{q}<1$. Show that sooner or later a value will hit a previous value (use the pigeonhole principle). What happens after a previous value has been "hit"?