No, it is zero.
Consider the function $f(x,y) = x^y$ and consider any sequences $\\{(x_0, y_0), (x_1, y_1), \ldots\\}$ with $x_i \to 0$ and $y_i \to \infty$. It is easy to see that $f(x_n,y_n)$ converges to zero: let $\epsilon > 0$. For some $N$, $|x_i| < \epsilon$ and $y_i > 1$ for all $i \geq N$, so $|f(x_i,y_i)| < \epsilon$ for all $i\geq N$.
More generally, as $x\to c$ and $y\to \infty$, $x^y$ converges to 0 for $|c|<1$, diverges to infinity for $c>1$, oscillates without converging for $c \leq -1$, and is indeterminate when $c=1$.