The intent of the author almost surely comes as the same for $\overline{p + q}$ as for $(\overline{p + q)}$. In other words, the author probably means the same thing by both strings. However, syntactically they do differ significantly, in that the second could potentially fit a set of formation rules for a logical system, while the first will not since all expressions with binary operations need parentheses in infix notation.
The answer to your second question is "yes".