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Cramer's rule — why must $A$ have non-zero determinant? I'm studying linear algebra and in the Cramer's rule why shouldn't the $A$ matrix have a zero determinant?

If you read just a little farther down on the Wiki entry, it says $$x_i = \frac{\det A_i}{\det A}.$$

If $\det A = 0$, we're dividing by zero.

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More generally, if a matrix has a determinant equal to zero, it is called "singular." This means it is non-invertible, so you cannot compute $x = A^{-1}b$, because the inverse $A^{-1}$ does not exist.

There are a number of ways to show this, and this fact is actually fundamentally important in linear algebra, but the best way to see is to note that the inverse of a matrix is formed by a permutation of the elements, and the whole matrix is the multiplied by one over the determinant.

For instance

$$\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\\ c & d \end{pmatrix}^{-1} = \frac{1}{ad - bc}\begin{pmatrix} d & -b \\\ -c & a\end{pmatrix}$$

where $\det = ad-bc$.

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