If I understand well your notation, the left-hand side is the quadratic mean, while the right-hand side is the arithmetic mean. It is well known is less than the former.
More generally, if we denote by $\,m_p(x)=\biggl(\dfrac{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i^p}n\biggr)^{\\!\tfrac1p}\,$ the $p$-power mean, it can be proved that $$p
Note that $m_1$ is the arithmetic mean and $m_{-1}$ is the harmonic mean.