No, there can be uncountably many bumpy points.
Consider the function $f$ defined as the uniform limit of the functions $f_n\colon[0,1]\mapsto [0,1]$ defined by $$ \begin{align} f_0(x)&=x\\\ f_{n+1}(x)&=\begin{cases} 4x & (0\leq x \leq \tfrac 1 4)\\\ 1-4(x-\tfrac 1 4) & (\tfrac 1 4\leq x \leq \tfrac 2 4)\\\ \tfrac 1 2 f_n(4(x-\tfrac 2 4)) & (\tfrac 2 4\leq t \leq \tfrac 3 4)\\\ \tfrac 1 2 + \tfrac 1 2 f_n(4(x-\tfrac 3 4)) & (\tfrac 3 4\leq t \leq 1).\\\ \end{cases} \end{align}$$
$ intersects infinitely many bumps. This also answers the "easier question" in the negative.