The answer is this for m pens and n pieces per pen: $$ f(m,n) = \sum_{j=0}^{m} (-1)^{m-j}\binom{m}{j}(j!)^n$$ I got this equation from here: <
Bonus points for anyone who can explain this...possibly in terms of Möbius inversion?
The answer is this for m pens and n pieces per pen: $$ f(m,n) = \sum_{j=0}^{m} (-1)^{m-j}\binom{m}{j}(j!)^n$$ I got this equation from here: <
Bonus points for anyone who can explain this...possibly in terms of Möbius inversion?